I am really enjoying the second Greek class. We are translating the book of 1st John (ΙΩΑΝΝΟΥ Α) and doing so to learn about Greek syntax. The professor said, "Exegesis is not applying rules - it's art. In 301 we gave you brush strokes and techniques. In 302 we are teaching you to paint!"
Read the text - Parse the nouns, verbs, and pronouns - take exegetical notes and insights - interpret the syntax - translate the sentence.
302 has been great. There are two large quizzes in it, but most of the work is out of class (I don't take tests very well, but I like writing papers). What I've enjoyed most of all has been seeing the value and pay off of reading the text in the original language.
Chapter 1 verse 8 (ESV, NKJV, etc.)
If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
(Koine Greek)
εαν ειπωμεν οτι αμαρτιαν ουκ εχομεν εαυτους πλανωμεν και η αληθεια ουκ εστιν εν ημιν
The English is an accurate, reliable, true, and helpful translation. However, reading it in Greek reveals more nuances that are untranslatable. The english reads "we have no sin" but in Greek the "no" is a word (ουκ) that doesn't directly mean "no" - it's a word that negates the word that follows it. The words that directly follows the ουκ is εχομεν which is the present tense, active voice, indicative mood, first person, plural word meaning, "we have/possess/hold." So the negation is of the "having" not the "sin."
The professor helped explain it this way. If you walk into a store and ask to buy milk the store could say, "We have no milk." That could mean one of two things: 1) The store is sold out today - there is no milk in the store or 2) the store NEVER carries milk - the store at no point now or ever will have milk - milk is not something innate to the store.
So, "We have no sin" is a completely accurate and legitmite translation, but it's actually slightly ambigious. The Greek is not ambigious. It's the difference between someone claiming to have not committed any sin and someone claiming not to "have sin." 1st John 1:8 isn't talking about spefic sins people commit - it's talking about having a sinful nature!
Learning all of this has been so exciting! I think it's amazing to see the art and the beauty of the scriptures in their orginal language. I only shared one of the most basic examples of just how the word order of three words makes a difference. There is HUGE pay off to all of the hard work that has been asked of me. I'm loving it! By the end of next week I will have my own translation of an entire book of the Bible that I can use in my studies for the rest of my life!
302 has been great. There are two large quizzes in it, but most of the work is out of class (I don't take tests very well, but I like writing papers). What I've enjoyed most of all has been seeing the value and pay off of reading the text in the original language.
Chapter 1 verse 8 (ESV, NKJV, etc.)
If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
(Koine Greek)
εαν ειπωμεν οτι αμαρτιαν ουκ εχομεν εαυτους πλανωμεν και η αληθεια ουκ εστιν εν ημιν
The English is an accurate, reliable, true, and helpful translation. However, reading it in Greek reveals more nuances that are untranslatable. The english reads "we have no sin" but in Greek the "no" is a word (ουκ) that doesn't directly mean "no" - it's a word that negates the word that follows it. The words that directly follows the ουκ is εχομεν which is the present tense, active voice, indicative mood, first person, plural word meaning, "we have/possess/hold." So the negation is of the "having" not the "sin."
The professor helped explain it this way. If you walk into a store and ask to buy milk the store could say, "We have no milk." That could mean one of two things: 1) The store is sold out today - there is no milk in the store or 2) the store NEVER carries milk - the store at no point now or ever will have milk - milk is not something innate to the store.
So, "We have no sin" is a completely accurate and legitmite translation, but it's actually slightly ambigious. The Greek is not ambigious. It's the difference between someone claiming to have not committed any sin and someone claiming not to "have sin." 1st John 1:8 isn't talking about spefic sins people commit - it's talking about having a sinful nature!
Learning all of this has been so exciting! I think it's amazing to see the art and the beauty of the scriptures in their orginal language. I only shared one of the most basic examples of just how the word order of three words makes a difference. There is HUGE pay off to all of the hard work that has been asked of me. I'm loving it! By the end of next week I will have my own translation of an entire book of the Bible that I can use in my studies for the rest of my life!